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> James Kirkpatrick once wrote that the "rule" is a fallacy that dates back
> when all important writing was in Latin. In Latin, it is impossible to end
> sentence in a preposition. Therefore, when the Latin version was
> to English, the sentences did not end in a preposition.
Of course, to accept that a recommendation for English usage is invalid
simply because it's of foreign origin would also be to invalidate over half
the words in the language... Does it matter from where the grammar (or the
word) comes, if it's commonly accepted? This is how people have come to
expect a formal English sentence to be written, regardless of the
'ethnicity' of the concept.
Todd G. Sutherland
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